
Originally Posted by
terri8369
Now that I have this working, I would like to ask an additional question so that I understand why the nat is needed, if indeed it is, and to make sure I should not be looking for a configuration problem in my setup.
I would have expected that in a tunnel, the original IP address would remain the same. It would go through the tunnel and the center gateway and then to other things on our network, and the client IP would remain the same. Ours is changing to the center gateway address. The NAT rule is making sure the IP address stays the same. Is this expected behavior?
So here is what I have...
client 1.1.2.1 >> CP1100 >> Tunnel >> Center Gateway 172.1.1.1 >> Webserver on network log shows 172.1.1.1
What I would have expected is...
client 1.1.2.1 >> CP1100 >> Tunnel >> Center Gateway 172.1.1.1 >> Webserver on network log shows 1.1.2.1
So the NAT rule makes the second scenario happen, but I'm wondering if I have something configured wrong to make the NAT rule required, or is that just how it works? If what I expected is what should be happening, I have some clean up to do. We are running r80.10, but made a conversion from r77.30 where we were using SmartProvisioning. Maybe SP was doing more behind the scenes than I knew.
Any help is appreciated. I have been googling how a VPN tunnel works, but have not yet found a diagram or anything that explains this piece.
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