Last question on traditional VPN's then i am outta here ;) Can someone just clarify whether when in traditional mode there is usually 1 management server managing multiple dstributed firewalls? Yes or no? and i assume that If this is the case then [silly question] the management server could be on the same subnet as gateway1 BUT on a completely different subnet of that of gateway2? that is correct - yes? If thats the case then an outbound rule must be in place for me to manage the remote gateway [gateway2] on gateway1, i.e. for SIC connections otherwise i would see SYN_SENT on my management server - and logs in smart view. Thanks Last edited by philofish; 2006-02-23 at 02:46. |